All Previous Tests - Let me know if one is not there
Site identifies a place by its
A location relative to other objects
B mathematical location on the earth’s surface
C nominal location
D unique physical characteristics
E none of the above
2. The arrangement of phenomenon across the Earth’s surface is
A regional analysis
B spatial analysis
C spatial association
D spatial distribution
3. The frequency of something within a given unit of area is
A concentration
B distribution
C pattern
D density
E none of the above
4. Which is a form of expansion diffusion
A contagious
B hierarchical
C relocation
D stimulational
E A, and B
5. A McDonald's in India that serves a McCurry Pan burger is an example of what type of diffusion
A contagious
B hierarchical
C relocation
D stimulus
E none of the above
6. Which of the following is not one of the three fundamental elements of culture
A Customary beliefs
B Material traits
C Physical environments
D Social forms
E None of the Above
7. The concept that the physical environment determines human activities is
A climate
B environmental determinism
C possibilism
D spatial association
E none of the above
8. Map projections attempt to correct for errors in
A transferability
B area, distance, scale and proportion
C area, distance, shape and direction
D distance, proximity and topology
E distance, shape and lines of latitude and longitude
9. A geographer would use a vernacular region to
A look at small focus area
B look at broad patterns
C focus on anomalies in space
D distinguish areas that do not share common features
E Understand a societies viewpoint of an area
10. All of the following are very good examples of a Functiona region except
A newspaper circulations
B broadcast television affiliates
C marketable areas for shops
D Internet site usage
E Drivable areas
11. States marked by a blue or red color would be a good way to use a
A vernacular region
B functional region
C nodal region
D formal region
E none of the above
12. The spread of something over a given study area is
A concentration
B density
C distribution
D pattern
E none of the above
13. Topography may be used to determine which of the following characteristics of place
A site features
B absolute location
C relative location
D situation
E none of the above
Map
14. The daily rag provides news to all the cities in the region and wants to build a new distribution center. If the Daily Rag distributes its paper according to city size, which city is the best located for minimizing distribution costs
A p
B q
C s
D x
E y
15. Students in City Y have come up with a new flavor of ice cream. If their innovation spreads hierarchically, which city’s residents will be the last to try new flavor.
A p
B r
C u
D w
E z
16. All of the following are effects of globalization except
A the growth of the importance of distance decay
B time-space compression
C uneven development
D interdependence
E none of the above
17. A small scale map most likely shows
A al large area
B a small area
C more generalization
D less generalization
E both d and b
18. If someone said that people living in the desert did not have as many opportunities because of a lack of resources, this would be an example of what geographic approach
A cultural ecology
B environmental determinism
C Environmental possibilism
D spatial association
E none of the above
Chart
19. Which boxes have the highest density
A ab
B bc
C cd
D ad
20. Which of the two boxes have the highest concentration of dots
A ac
B bd
C ab
D cd
21. In the years before globalization (pre1990), the world had
A Less specialization at the local level
B More specialization at the local level
C No specialization
D Equal development distribution
E None of the above
22. Geography’s most important and basic tool for thinking spatially about the distribution of features across the earth is
A GPA
B GIS
C a map
D remote sensing
23. Which is true
A large scale maps have a large fraction and tend to show a larger area in less detail because
they have fewer miles represented per square inch on a map.
B small scale maps have a smaller fraction and represent a more area in less detail because
they have more miles per square inch on a map represented
C large scale maps have a small fraction and show a larger area in more detail
D small scale maps have a larger fraction and in general show a smaller area in more detail
because they represent fewer miles per square inch than large scale maps
E None of the above
24. Country X has a crude birth rate of 10 and a crude death rate of 11. In what stage of the
demographic transition is it
A Stage 1 C Stage 3
B Stage 2 D Stage 4
E None
25. Commuting to a location is
A Migration B Mobility
C Net Migration D Communal Migration
E Forced Migration
26. Country X has a CBR of 10 and a CDR of 15 while Country Y had a CBR of 20 and a CDR of 9.
Which country has a higher natural increase rate?
A Country X B Country Y
C Both are Equal D Cannot be computed based off of the data
27. Neo-Malthusians believe that the Malthus thesis is
A more frightening than before because there are more stage two countries now
B. the transferability of medical technology has caused more of a problem
C. The gap between people and resources is even wider in many countries than in Malthus' time
D. That food resources are only part of the issue
E all of the above.
28. Thomas Malthus concluded that
A population increased geometrically while population increased arithmetically
B the world's rate of population increase was higher than food production
C moral restraint and higher wages could produce lower NIR's
D population growth was inevitably going to end in war or famine every time
E All of the above
29. One important feature of the world's population that is most likely going to have the most important
future implications
A It is increasing at a slower pace
B there are more people alive today than ever before
C the most rapid growth is in the less developed countries
D people are uniformly distributed across the globe
E many countries now have negative population growth increase rates
30. Refugees primarily migrate because of which push factor?
A Economic B Political
C Environmental D None had precedent over the others
E None of the Above
31. Geographers define underpopulation as
A too few people in the world
B too few people in a region
C too few people to best use the resources
D all of the above
E None of the above
32.. Physiological density is the number of
A acres of farmland C number of people to arable land
B farmers per area of farmland D number of people to each unit of land
E arithmetic density of an area
33. The process through which skilled and educated classes leave to other more developed countries
A net migration
B immigration
C brain drain
D Inteliousis
E None of the Above
34. Undocumented workers are almost invariably
A illegal immigrants
B low-status foreigners
C Muslims
D southern Europeans
E an unimportant part of the country's economy
35. If physiological density is slightly higher than agricultural density then a country has
A inefficient farmers
B a large number of farmers
C a small percentage of farmers
D too many people for the available resources
E Both A and B and maybe D
36. If physiological density is about twice of the agricultural density then
A you have a country that must be having a famine
B there is only one other person for every farmer
C the country is most likely not a more developed country
D you have twice the number of farmers over the overall population
E both B and C
37 Migration to Europe from African and Middle Eastern countries in the 1990s was due in part to the fact that these areas were (Africa and the Middle East)
A had higher natural increase rates
B were in stage 2 or 3 of the migration transition
C had drops in their CDR's
D Europe had more resources and opportunities for employment
E all of the above
38. The difference between stage three and four of the demographic transition occurs when
A the birth and death rates decline
B the death rate rises
C the birth rate declines
D the death rate declines
E None of the above
39. Quality government education for all has the same effect as economic development in that
A it increases the wealth of a country
B it increases the countries Gross Domestic Product
C it lowers the total fertility rate
D it increases the likelihood of women's rights along with lowering fertility rates
E Both C and D
40. The highest natural increase rates are found in less developed countries in this area of the world
A Asia B Africa C Latin America D Europe E America
41. The principal reason France had a decrease in its natural increase rate throughout the 1990s was
because of
A the country's growth and development
B the declining CDR
C the in increasing CBR
D the increasing CDR
E both A and D
42. Mr. Lewis frequently
A puts his cats in a stroller and takes them for a walk in the park
B knocks the books out of freshman girls' arms
C knocks on Foley's door and then runs
D All of the above
43. Two largest international refugees groups
44. Two largest internal refugees
A Angolans and Afghans
B Palestinians and Angolans
C Sudan and Palestinians
D Sudan and Angolans
E Palestinians and Afghans
45. Migration is
A the number of immigrants minus the number of people who attempted to migrate
B the number of immigrants minus the number of emigrants
C is the number of people plus the number immigrants minus deaths and emigrants
D None of the Above
46. The epidemiological transition refers to how
A in stage one famines and plagues are the main cause of death
B in stage two no pandemics occur
C in stage three there is an increase in diseases such as heart attacks and cancers
D in stage four cancers and heart attacks get pushed back to even older ages of people
E both C and D
47. According to the migration transition
A stage one countries have people that migrate to stage four countries
B stage two countries have people that migrate to stage four countries
C stage four countries have low birth rates and people emigrate to them especially if 4's wish to keep
their population stable or to get it to increase.
D people from stage two countries will not go to countries in stage three
E both B and C
48. (T/F) Many countries of the world have a death rate of around 5 per one thousand
49. Crude in CBR and CDR means
A an estimate that can only be crudely guessed because even developed countries cannot keep total track of births or deaths
B the total number of people even if they are immigrants or emigrated
C the number of births or deaths per 1000 people of any age or sex
D the number of births or deaths
E None of the above
50. Transhumance includes
A commuting
B daily activities
C College students who move from home
D Military leaves
E Seasonal, traveling nomads
1. Which is true
A large scale maps have a large fraction and tend to show a smaller area in more detail because
they have fewer miles represented per square inch on a map.
B small scale maps have a smaller fraction and represent a smaller area in more detail because
they have fewer miles per square inch on a map represented
C large scale maps have a small fraction and show a larger area in more detail
D small scale maps have a larger fraction and in general show a smaller area in more detail
because they represent fewer miles per square inch than large scale maps
E None of the above
2. Country X has a crude birth rate of 40 and a crude death rate of 15. In what stage of the
demographic transition is it
A Stage 1 C Stage 3
B Stage 2 D Stage 4
E None
3. A permanent move to a new location is
A Migration B Mobility
C Net Migration D Voluntary Migration
E Forced Migration
4. Country X has a CBR of 40 and a CDR of 15 while Country Y had a CBR of 20 and a CDR of 9.
Which country has a higher natural increase rate?
A Country X B Country Y
C Both are Equal D Cannot be computed based off of the data
5. The shape of a country's pyramid is determined primarily by its
A Sex Ratio C Crude Death Rate
B Dependency Ratio D Crude Birth Rate
6. A country has net immigration if emigration _______immigration
A Equals C is closer to net migration than
B Exceeds D is less than
7. Thomas Malthus concluded that
A population increased arithmetically while population increased geometrically
B the world's rate of population increase was higher than food production
C moral restrain was already and definitively producing lower NIR's
D population growth was inevitably going to end in war or famine every time
8. One important feature of the world's population that is most likely going to have the most important
future implications
A It is increasing at a slower pace
B there are more people alive today than ever before
C the most rapid growth is in the less developed countries
D people are uniformly distributed across the globe
E many countries now have negative population growth increase rates
9. Refugees primarily migrate because of which push factor?
A Economic B Political
C Environmental D None had precedent over the others
E None of the Above
10. Geographers define overpopulation as
A too many people in the world
B too many people in a region
C too many people compared to resources
D all of the above
E None of the above
11. The most important obstacle hindering emigration from eastern Europe during the Cold War was
A the Rhine river C the Iron Curtain
B the Alps D capitalist democracies and their quotas
12. Millions of West Africans migrated to Nigeria during the 1970s when the country's economy
expanded and then left when it collapsed in the 1980s. This is an example of
A a push factor becoming a pull factor
B emigration changing to immigration
C forced migration to voluntary
D a pull factor changing to push
E Refugees being forced in and out of countries
13. Agricultural density is the number of
A acres of farmland C number of people to arable land
B farmers per area of farmland D number of people to each unit of land
E arithmetic density of an area
14. Forced consolidation of farms forced
A a decline of food supplies on a global scale
B made cities less likely to find the labor pools they needed
C increased death rates everywhere it occurred
D made Europeans emigrate from their farms
15. In the early 1900s, most migrants to the United States came from
A Asia C Western Europe
B Africa D Latin America
E Eastern Europe
16. The process through which skilled and educated classes leave to other more developed countries
A net migration
B immigration
C brain drain
D Inteliousis
E None of the Above
17. Guest Workers in Europe and the Middle East are almost invariably
A illegal immigrants
B low-status foreigners
C Muslims
D southern Europeans
E are an unimportant part of the country's economy
18. A country with a large amount of land and a small number of people will have a
A high physiological density B low physiological density
C high agricultural density D low agricultural density
E Both B and D
19. The U.S. center of population has moved continually
A east B north C south D west
20. If physiological density is much higher than agricultural density then a country has
A inefficient farmers
B a large number of farmers
C a small percentage of farmers
D too many people for the available resources
21. If physiological density is about twice of the agricultural density then
A you have a country that must be having a famine
B there is only one other person for every farmer
C the country is most likely not a more developed country
D you have twice the number of farmers over the overall population
E both B and C
22. Large scale migration occurred in Southeast Asia after 1975 primarily because of
A boat people
B communist victory
C failure of the monsoon rains
D separation of religious groups
23. Migration increased to the United States from Latin American and Asian countries in the 1980s
and from Europe in the late 1800s to early 1900s in part because all were
A had higher natural increase rates
B were in stage 2 or 3 of the migration transition
C had drops in their CDR's
D the U.S. had more resources and opportunities for employment
E all of the above
24. The difference between stage one and two of the demographic transition occurs when
A the birth and death rates decline
B the death rate rises
C the birth rate declines
D the death rate declines
E both A and C
25 Quality government education for all has the same effect as economic development in that
A it increases the wealth of a country
B it increases the countries Gross Domestic Product
C it lowers the total fertility rate
D it increases the likelihood of women's rights along with lowering fertility rates
E Both C and D
26. The difference between stage two and stage three of the demographic transition is that
A in stage three the birth rate stabilizes
B in stage three the death rate still goes down but begins to stabilize
C in stage three the death rate rises
D in stage three the birth rate declines
E both E and B
27. The highest natural increase rates are found in less developed countries in which stage of the
demographic transition
A one B two C three D four
28. The principal reason Rwanda had a decrease in its natural increase rate in the mid 1990s was
because of
A the country's growth and development
B the declining CDR
C the in increasing CBR
D the increasing CDR
E both A and D
29. Country X has a CBR of 40 and a CDR of 15 while country Y has a CBR of 20 and a CDR of 9.
Which has a higher natural increase rate?
A country X
B Country Y
C The rate is equal for both
D Cannot be done given the information at hand
E What the hell did you just do you little punk
30. Mr. Lewis frequently
A puts his cats in a stroller and takes them for a walk in the park
B knocks the books out of freshman girls' arms
C knocks on Foley's door and then runs
D All of the above
31. Two largest international refugees groups
32. Two largest internal refugees
A Angolans and Afghans
B Palestinians and Angolans
C Sudan and Palestinians
D Sudan and Angolans
E Palestinians and Afghans
33. In reality, food production
A has outpaced population natural increase rates
B has not quite kept pace with population which explains why famines occur
C is adequate. Fewer people have been born now than in the 1980s because of a decreasing NIR
meaning more food for all
D Both C and A
34. Net migration is
A the number of immigrants minus the number of people who attempted to migrate
B the number of immigrants minus the number of emigrants
C is the number of people plus the number immigrants minus deaths and emigrants
D None of the Above
35. The ability to move from one location to another is
A migration C net migration
B mobility D voluntary migration
E forced migration
36. The epidemiological transition refers to how
A in stage one famines and plagues are the main cause of death
B in stage two pandemics recede
C in stage three and four an increase in diseases such as heart attacks and cancers
D all of the above
E none of the above
37. According to the migration transition
A stage one countries have people that migrate to stage four countries
B stage two countries have people that migrate to stage four countries
C stage four countries have low birth rates and people emigrate to them especially if 4's wish to keep
their population stable or to get it to increase.
D people from stage two countries will not go to countries in stage three
E both B and C
38. The following is true
A Asian and African countries are in stage three of the demographic transition
B Africa is the predominant area for stage two countries
C Latin America and Asian countries are in stage three and have high NIRs so lots of people from
those countries head to America
D America is a stage four country but immigrants help to keep the population stable or rising because
they have more kids than second or third generation Americans
E BCD are all true and A is absolutely false
39. (T/F) Many countries of the world have a death rate of around 40
40. Crude in CBR and CDR means
A an estimate that can only be crudely guessed because even developed countries cannot keep total track of births or deaths
B the total number of people even if they are immigrants or emigrated
C the number of births or deaths per 1000 people of any age or sex
D the number of births or deaths
E None of the above
10 Points (easy grading on this part)
In absolutely no more than one paragraph of around ten sentences explain Malthus theory
A how it relates to population versus food production
B one way he believed it was solved
C how his theory on food and population production has held up in recent history
What country has the largest Muslim population Indonesia
One in six Africans comes from this country Nigeria
Rwanda suffered genocide in part because of this issue Overpopulation
What is TFR # of kids a woman has in her life
Roughly what was the TFR of a woman in Rwanda around the time of the genocide 8
Many of the Migrants to France are this? Muslim
Europe and the Middle East have this program for immigrants and W. Bush wants this for America Guest Workers
What did France ban in its public schools? Headscarves - religious symbols
What country is an extremely homogeneous country that does not allow for immigration despite an aging population Japan
How does education relate to economic growth in terms of TFR Lowers it
What is Infant mortality rate # of kids that die by age 1
What is a J curve and how does it relate to population growth
What would you expect to see in America's population pyramid in the 1960s bulge from babyboom
How would you expect Maine's population pyramid to look rectangular with a small bottom
LDC countries would have a bulge in what segment of the population base
55% of India's population is what young - under age 26
Why would Japan have a high CDR? aging population
1 The most important distinction for dividing the world into agricultural regions is
A whether the product is consumed on or off the farm
B whether crops are grown or animals are raised
C the location of the first agriculture
D the population density of crop-producing region
E the agricultural density of the crop-producing region
2 The cultivation of plants by cutting stems and dividing roots is
a sawah
b seed agriculture
c subsistence agriculture
d vegetative planting
e dry planting
3 Unique agricultural practices arrive in particular regions because of
a characteristics of the physical environment
b limited knowledge of alternatives
c distinctive cultural traits
d all of the above
e both a and b
4 Which is not a form of subsistence agriculture
a Mediterranean
b shifting cultivation
c pastoral nomadism
d all of the above are forms
e none of the following are forms
5 Which is not a characteristic of shifting cultivation
a land is cleared by slashing the vegetation
b debris is burned to provide the soil with nutrients
c a new site is designated every few years
d animals and crops have a symbiotic relationship
e all of the above
6 Shifting cultivation is found primarily in which climate region
a humid low-latitude
b dry
c warm mid-latitude
d cold mid-latitude
e Mediterranean
7 According to von Thunen's model, a commercial farmer is concerned with which costs
a price of land
b cost of transporting
c value of land per hectare
d all of the above considered
e none of the above
8 Von Thunen's model can be best be used to explain the location of which of the following types of agriculture
a dairying in the northeast U.S.
b ranching in the dry lands of North Africa
c shifting cultivation in the tropics of South America
d intensive subsistence in south China
e pastoral nomadism in southwest Asia
9 Other than corn, the most important crop in the U.S. Mixed crop and livestock region is
a wheat b soybean c grain d fruits and vegetables e nuts
10 Some regions produce more cheese than milk because
a they are outside major milksheds
b of a cultural preference for cheese
c they are specialized
d the output is not sold directly to consumers
e both a and c
11 Ranching has declined in the southwestern U.S. Primarily because
a crops yield more income per area
b the predominant breed of cattle has changed
c long-distance cattle drives are no longer practical
d the region lacks adequate water supplies
e American eat less beef
12 The different areas of the world where Mediterranean agriculture predominates share similar
a climate
b cultural beliefs
c levels of development
d social customs
e languages
13 Farmers in more developed and less developed countries share which of the following problems
a access to fertilizers
b inadequate income
c lack of equipment
d surplus production
e lack of labor
14 Less developed countries generate funds to promote development through
a bartering with urban residents
b encouraging traditional subsistence agriculture
c feeding the rapidly growing population
d selling export crops
e incurring debt
15 Unlike other forms of commercial agriculture plantations are
a part of agribusiness
b owned by people in the less developed countries
c found primarily in less developed countries
d all of the above
e both b and c
16 All of the following differentiate subsistence farming from commercial farming except
A purpose of farming
B percentage of farmers in the labor force
C size of the yield
D use of machinery
E all of the above
17 The difference between cultivation and agriculture is
A use of tools B climate C scale D cultural preference E both A and C
18 One difference between mixed crop and livestock farming and grain farming is
A in grain farming, most crops are grown for human consumption
B mixed crop and livestock farming is located near urban areas
C in grain farming, most crops are grown to feed animals
D in grain farming, corn is the most important crops
E in mixed crop and livestock farming, wheat is the most important crop
19 Livestock ranching is
A more likely to be practiced in LDC’s
B adapted to a Mediterranean climate
C practiced where the vegetation is sparse
D a form of subsistence agriculture
E both A and D
20 All of the following is true about truck farming except
A it is the predominant type of agriculture in the U.S. southeast
B is accessible to large markets
C it includes products like corn and wheat
D it is likely to include migrant labor
E none of the above
21 The Von Thunen model includes which of the following beliefs
A market location plays a key role in crop selection
B Farmers compare the cost of land versus the cost of transporting cost
C the ring closest to the city contains livestock production
D All of the above
E both a and b
22 Which statement correctly describes hunting and gathering?
A all humans obtained their food this way before the invention of agriculture
B it is a form of nomadism
C This way of life is still practiced
D all of the above
E none of the above
23 The U.S. government deals with a surplus of crops by all of the following except
A paying farmers to let fields lay fallow
B paying farmers when prices drop
C buying the surplus
D donating to foreign governments
E Actually they do all of the above
24 Sustainable agriculture
A is similar to subsistence agriculture
B is more sensitive land management
C includes intensive use of pesticides
D incorporated genetic engineering
E strictly separates cultivation of crops and livestock
25 All of the following are strategies that could potentially increase food supply except
A expand land use for agriculture
B increasing crops for export
C increase productivity of land
D identify new food sources
E increase exports from countries that produce surpluses
36. Agriculture that creates self-sufficiency with low product per acre and low population density is known as
1.
extensive commercial agriculture
2.
extensive subsistence agriculture
3.
organic farming
4.
intensive commercial agriculture
5.
intensive subsistence agriculture
37. The green revolution has had the most success in
1.
europe
2.
asia
3.
africa
4.
north america
5.
latin america
38. Which of the following is NOT a result of the green revolution?
1.
it improved the ability of women to make a living in the agricultural sector
2.
it used genetically improved seeds to increase crop yields
3.
it increased the machinery available to farmers
4.
it relied heavily on irrigation and fertilizer
5.
it significantly increased food production
39. The boserup thesis contends that
1.
the world will not be able to feed all of the inhabitants as population grows
2.
rising population will intensify agricultural production even on marginal land
3.
the maintenance of soil fertility can only be accomplished through swidden agriculture
4.
the controlled management of water is detrimental to intensive subsistence agriculture
5.
none of the above
40. Because of the use of _______, it is now more likely that an entire crop may be lost to a disease or pest
1.
field blends
2.
sterile hybrids
3.
chemical fertilizer
4.
monoculture
5.
pastoral nomadism
41. Which of the following activities is most likely to be found in the outermost zone of von thunen’s model of agricultural land us?
1.
mixed farming
2.
subsistence
3.
specialty farming
4.
dairying and market gardening
5.
extensive grain and stock raising
42. All of the following has limited the success of the green revolution except
1.
the displacement of subsistence farmers
2.
belated research efforts directed to traditional african crops
3.
the difficulty of scientifically engineering high-yield rice strains
4.
a decline in the genetic diversity of crop varieties
5.
the destruction of large tracts of land by poor irrigation practices
43. What is the general location of the largest areas of commercial farms?
1.
in tropical zones
2.
in north america
3.
in the temperate zones
4.
in the countries of the former soviet union
5.
in sub-saharan africa
44. The primary reason for the increased success of agriculture on a global scale is directly related to
1.
the decision of the UN security council and general assembly
2.
the policies of the US department of agriculture
3.
the worldwide commercialization of farming
4.
the recent advances in technology and genetic engineering
5.
the decline in subsistence farming and slash and burn techniques
45. The process of shifting cultivation most directly relates to
1.
the first agricultural revolution
2.
the second agricultural revolution
3.
the green revolution
4.
hunting and gathering economies
5.
subsistence farming
46. The industrial revolution transformed western agriculture
1.
through mechanization and the creation of new markets
2.
with biotechnology
3.
through technological and religious change
4.
by eliminating agricultural pests
5.
by eliminating plant hybridization
47. Which of the following was not a location of independent plant and animal domestication?
1.
india
2.
iraq
3.
california
4.
china
5.
peru
48. the effects of biotechnology
1.
are positive because they allow for much greater agricultural yields
2.
are negative because the expense limits availability to all farmers across the globe
3.
are unknown because very little research has been conducted on them
4.
all of the above
5.
none of the above
49. agribusiness has had all of the following effects on agriculture except
1.
the farm is no longer the center of agricultural activity
2.
MDCs often control agricultural activity abroad
3.
Family farmers, through increasing technology, are producing goods for the global economy
4.
Agriculture has become vertically integrated
5.
Some corporations dictate agricultural production in countries besides their own
50. soil specialists must work to overcome the negative
effects of _______ associated with agricultural production
1.
fertilization and salinization
2.
pesticides and fertilizers
3.
salinization and topsoil loss
4.
topsoil loss and gentrification
5.
the green revolution and agribusiness
51 What are the three main crops of large farms in America
a wheat, corn, soy
b soy, sugar, wheat
c corn, soy, sugar
d wheat, corn, barley
e none of the above
52 What do smaller farms use less of than large farms and why
a chemicals
b machines
c processing for foods
d preservatives to get the foods to markets and extend their shelf lives
e all of the above
53 How is the distribution of chickens different here than in China
a more condensed
b highly clustered
c densely clustered
d concentrated
e all of the above
54 What is truck farming
a non-tropical fruits that are grown on small farms using union labor
b tropical fruits grown on plantations and trucked to core countries
c non-tropical fruits that often rely on mirantory and undocumented labor
d any fruit or vegetables grown in a core country
e must use mechanization
55 How does monoculture make a country more susceptible to problems
a less genetic variety
b one crop can get hit by one problem wiping it out everywhere
c weaker plants are used that cannot grow as well
d designed to go with one culture
e both a and b
56 How does a state differ from a chiefdom in terms of population composition
a heterogeneous ethnically
b homogeneous ethnically
c socially stratified (more)
d less accepting of outsiders
e both a and b
57 Slash and burn is sustainable in this level but loses sustainability at what stage
a 2
b 3
c 4
d 1
e none of the above
58 Where is slash and burn practiced primarily
a Asia
b Africa
c America
d Europe
e all of the above
59 What crop is double cropped quite often
a rice b wheat
c corn d barley
e none of the above
60 If a person owns several suitcase farms they are more likely to travel this direction and for this reason
a north to south b east to west
c west to east d southeast to west e none of the above
1. The most egalitarian organization of people is the
a band b band c state d tribe e both a and c
2. An area organized into an independent political unit is a
a colony b nationality c satellite d state e nationality
3. a group of people who occupy a particular area and have a strong sense of unity based on a set of shared beliefs is a
a centripetal force b nationality c self determination d unitary state e state
4. A state with control over its internal affairs has
a centripetal forces b nationality c nation-state d sovereignty e centrifugal forces
5 The attempt by one country to impose political control over another territory is
a colonialism b constitutionality c self-determination d sovereignty e nationalism
6. The most extreme economic specialization occurs in a
a chiefdom b tribe c band d state e nation
7. A nation state is
a a politically organized area in which nation and state occupy different spaces
b a shared cultural community that shares the same borders as a country
c a sovereign area
d an organized region with no historic connotations
e none
8. A state is a good example of
a an organized region b spatial interaction c cultural diffusion d a nation e a perceptual region
9. A frontier in contrast to a boundary
a separates two states
b is an area not a line
c separates states more often than the other
d has a set area
e all of the above
10. Which shape most easily fosters the establishment of effective internal communications for a smaller state
a compact b elongated c fragmented d prorupted e none
11. The boundary between the U.S. and Mexico is best described as
a geometric b linguistic c water d all of the above e both a and c
12. Boundaries were redrawn in much Europe after WWI according to the
a distribution of languages
b demands of the victorious British and French
c containing Nazi's
d league of nations
e United Nations
13. The Kurds are a
a multinational state
b nationality divided among more than one state
c within Iraq
d within Turkey
e b,c,d
14. An increasing number of states have adopted a federal form of government primarily to
a satisfy the demands of competing nationalities
b encourage the break up of the superpower alliances
c govern compact states more effectively
d meet all of the above needs
e impose the dominant values of one nationality
15. A state which places most power in the hands of a central government is a
a federal state b nation-state c fragmented state d unitary state e formal state
16. Which of the following conditions most limits the ability of some countries to participate in the global economy
a prorupted b perforated c large frontier d fragmented e landlocked
17. The UN is primarily what kind of cooperative effort
a political b military c economic d all of the above e none of the above
18. NAFTA is
a political b military c economic d all of the above e none of the above
19. The boundary between the Republic of Ireland and Northern Ireland is an example of what kind of boundary
a physical boundary b geometric boundary
c frontier d cultural boundary
e antecendent boundary
20. The shape of a state has all of the following effects except
a it controls the length of boundaries with other states
b it rarely generates conflict
c it may create a unique identity
d it can act as a centripetal force
e it affects the potential for communication
21. The state where the distance from the center to any boundary does not vary much is which kind of state
a elongated b fragmented c compact d perforated e prorupted
22. A prorupted state is created for the following reason:
a to provide water access
b improve communications
c separate state that would otherwise share a boundary
d act as a centrifugal force
e both a and c
23. All of the following are benefits of a frontier except
a it is a zone where no state has complete political control
b it provides an area of separation
c it is a thin imaginary line
d it is a tangible geographic area
e it is sparsely populated
24. Where did the nation state concept originate and where is it the most extensively used
a Europe b Asia c North America d Africa e none of the above
25. All of the following are examples of cultural boundaries except
a India Pakistan
b Ireland Northern Ireland
c Poland
d Yugoslavia
e both C and D
26. A superimposed boundary is
a a political border that has ceased to function
b a boundary created by powerful outsiders
c a political boundary that existed before the cultural landscape emerged
d a political boundary that usually ignores pre-existing culture patterns (i.e Africa)
e both b and d
27. The struggle facing the U.S. to limit immigration is which kind of border dispute
a definitional b locational c operational d allocational e relic
28 the recent trend towards federal states can be attributed to
a the creation of smaller states
b more effective communications
c a desire to empower nationalities
d the desire of one nationality to rule over another
e the spread of communism
29. Gerrymandering includes all of the following except
a redrawing line to disperse opposition votes
b concentrating supporters to gain districts
c creating more competitive districts for the party in control
d stacking votes
e both a and c
30. Sweden is a
a compact state b elongated state c fragmented state d prorupted state e both b and c
31. Which of the following is not considered to be a centripetal force preserving a state's cohesion
a UN membership
b nationalism
c effective transportation and communication
d effective organization and administration
e state religion
32. All of the following are terms that connote nation state except
a political b ethnicity c religion d languagee racial
33. Use your mental map to classify the boundaries of Colorado
a superimposed b antecedent c cultural-political d geometric e relic
34. All of the following are levels of state support for terrorism except
a planning an attack
b providing sanctuary to terrorists
c spreading fear and anxiety
d supplying weapons
e both a and c
35. Why is tribalism a centrifugal force in Africa
a because the Europeans drew the boundaries
b because Africa has many multinational countries
c because many Africans identify themselves according to their country first and foremost
d all of the above
e a and b
36. Which area of the world does shatterbelt best apply
a Balkans b China c Australia d Japane United States
37. Which is an example of a stateless nation
a Kurds b Japanese c Africans d Americans e none of the above
38. Why is the ideal shape for an ethnic hood also circular
a fosters the establishment of effective internal communications for a smaller state
b allows for the least amount of necessary contact with outsiders
c allows for a center that can more easily reach everyone
d creates the least amount of borderline
e all of the above
39. What type of government is more likely to go with a nation-state
a federal b unitary c democratic d dictatorship e none of the above
40. What type of government goes with a multi-national state
a federal b unitary c democratic d dictatorship e none of the above
41. What is a multi-national state
a several countries in one
b a state with multiple states within it
c a state with many nations in it
d none of the above
e all of the above
42. What is a strong centripetal force in Israel
a ethnicity
b war
c religion
d the large number of Arabs that do live within the country of Israel
e none of the above
43. What is the difference between the EU and NAFTA
a NAFTA is a customs union while the EU is a free trade zone
b Mexico and the U.S. have the same trade policies with other countries around the world
c The EU made it easier to do trade across borders whereas NAFTA did not
d In the EU, all countries have agreed to some common policies of trade with outside countries
e The EU and NAFTA are the same basic idea but applied to different coutries
44. What is packing
a placing a large number of your voters into one district for yourself
b placing a large number of your opponents voters into one district
c placing a large number of voters into one district
d both a and c
e none of the above
45. Define nation-state
a country within a country
b a group of people that share a common culture and heritage
c a political border
d one group of people culturally united that exist within the area of a political border.
e both b and c
46. Where in the world do most nation-states exist
a Europe
b Africa
c Latin America
d Japan
e Asia
47. Why is Africa not made up of a bunch of nation-states
a the borders are superimposed borders
b the Berlin conference divided the countries according to European interests
c there are too many differing groups within many countries to make that feasible
d there is no realistic way to redraw the boundaries to make this possible
e all of the above
48. What kind of nation-state is India
a homogeneous country
b is not a nation-state
c is a nation state with a large religiously-defined minority within it
d is a nation state with a large ethnically-defined minority in it
e none of the above
49. What is the most visible difference between the rest of Canada and Quebec
a linguistic
b physical geography
c ethnic
d architectural
e all of the above are equally visible
50. Why are you crying
a Mr. Lewis stole your little puppy
b Mr. Lewis and Ms. Schencker are giving you a ton of work over break
c Mr. Lewis stole Christmas
d Ms. Schencker stole the rest of the holidays
e all of the above
Unit III Test
1) The frequent repetition of an act, to the extent that it becomes characteristic of a group of people is a
A) custom. B) popular culture. C) habit. D) taboo. E) religion
2) A fundamental difference between folk culture and popular culture is that folk culture
A) often sets a minority group apart from a region’s general population
B) is adaptive to change over time
C) tends to diffuse rapidly across geographic space
D) loses some of its distinctive characteristics as it crosses national boundaries
E) represents universal values
3) In contrast to folk culture, popular culture is typical of
A) homogeneous groups.
B) sense of family and community
C) groups living in isolated rural areas.
D) groups that have little interaction with other groups.
E) groups living in large cities
4) Which of the following characteristics is more typical of a popular culture than a folk culture?
A) It has an anonymous origin.
B) It diffuses slowly from its point of origin.
C) It results in a more uniform landscape.
D) It is likely to be derived from physical conditions.
E) It results in a more heterogeneous landscape
5) Folk cultures are spread primarily by
A) contagious diffusion.
B) hierarchical diffusion.
C) relocation diffusion.
D) stimulus diffusion.
E) none of the above
6) folk customs are more likely than popular customs to
A) evolve from the isolation of different groups.
B) diffuse through modern communication systems.
C) be a part of universalizing religions and not ethnic religions
D) have an known source of origin.
E) evolve from expansion diffusion
7) In contrast to popular culture, folk cultures are more likely to vary
A) from place to place at a given time.
B) from time to time at a given place.
C) both from place to place and from time to time.
D) neither from place to place nor from time to time.
E) both A and B
8) popular customs usually originate from all of the following except
A) the availability of more leisure time.
B) the application of industrial technology.
C) familiar events in daily life.
D) high income levels
E) all of the above
9) Folk customs most frequently originate in
A) more developed countries.
B) less developed countries.
C) former communist countries.
D) equally likely in all of the above
E) equally likely in none of the above
10) A restriction on behavior imposed by social custom is a
A) folk culture. B) habit. C) popular culture. D) taboo. E) custom
11) A taboo against beef is a characteristic of
A) Judaism and Islam.
B) Judaism and Buddhism.
C) Buddhism.
D) Christianity
E) Hinduism
12) American chains such as Home Depot, McDonald's and Wal Mart
A) promote a uniform landscape.
B) reflect the preservation of folk culture.
C) provide diversity on the U.S. landscape.
D) promote diffusion of folk culture.
E) demonstrate isolation of folk culture
13) A form of a language spoken in a local area is a
A) dialect. B) language branch. C) language family. D) language group. E) lingua franca
14) When people who speak a given language migrate to a different location and become isolated from other members of their tribe
A) their language usually shows very little change even over a long period of time.
B) they immediately develop a literary tradition.
C) isolation usually results in the differentiation of one language into two.
D) they lose their linguistic abilities.
E) both A and D
15) Hebrew is an example of
A) an isolated language. B) an extinct language. C) a revived language. D) a language family. E) dialect
16) The large number of individual languages documented in Africa has resulted primarily from
A) thousands of years of isolation between tribal groups.
B) repeated invasions by outsiders.
C) introduction of many different languages by the colonial powers.
D) frequent migration by the different tribal groups.
E) contagious diffusion
17) Franglais is
A) an English words entering the French language.
B) a language that is mutually understood by people who have different native languages.
C) an extinct language that has been revived.
D) an official language in a region of the world different from where the language originated.
E) a dialect
18) An isogloss is
A) a form of a language spoken in a local area.
B) a collection of unique words.
C) a boundary between language regions.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
19) English is part of which language group?
A) Germanic B) North Germanic C) West Germanic D) Indo-European E) Sino-Tibetan
20) English is part of which language branch?
A) Germanic B) North Germanic C) West Germanic D) Indo-European E) Sino-Tibetan
21) English is part of which language family?
A) Germanic B) North Germanic C) West Germanic D) Indo-European E) Sino-Tibetan
22) With respect to the relationship between culture, religion, and the physical environment
A) ethnic religions more often derive meaningful events from the physical environment.
B) religious ideas may be responsible for some of the changes people make in the physical environment.
C) Proselytizing religions are less likely to have many symbols linked to the landscape.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above are true
23) A global religion
A) is based on the physical characteristics of a particular location on Earth.
B) rarely appeals to people living in LDCs.
C) is rarely transmitted through missionaries.
D) is intentionally developed to be a world religion.
E) is not regionally isolated
24) The world's largest universalizing religion is
A) Buddhism. B) Christianity. C) Hinduism . D) Islam. E) Daoism
25) The world's largest ethnic religion is
A) Confucianism. B) Daoism. C) Hinduism. D) Shintoism. E) Buddhism
26) Christianity first diffused from its hearth through
A) contagious diffusion. B) hierarchical diffusion.
C) relocation diffusion. D) all of the above were equally important.
E) none of the above are true
27) The dominant branch of Islam is
A) Druze. B) Eastern Orthodoxy. C) Shiite. D) Sunni. E) Persian
28) Which of the following is currently the most important religion in the homeland of the man who founded it?
A) Buddhism B) Christianity C) Hinduism D) Islam E) Judaism
29) Unlike other universalizing religions, Buddhism
A) remained concentrated in one region of the world.
B) was not begun by an individual founder.
C) was founded in China.
D) worships more than one god.
E) diffused widely
30) Animists believe that
A) people should complete God's creation of the Earth.
B) inanimate objects and natural events have spirits.
C) people should make complete use of the Earth's resources.
D) natural disasters are preventable.
E) there is one supreme god
31) The agricultural calendar is relatively unimportant to which type of religions?
A) animist B) ethnic C) pagan D) universalizing E) none of the above
32) For most of the past 2,000 years, most Jews have been
A) highly clustered in present-day Israel.
B) dispersed around the world.
C) concentrated in the United States.
D) forced to live in ghettos.
E) highly clustered in North Africa
33) Judaism is classified as an ethnic rather than a universalizing religion, primarily because
A) its main holidays relate to events in the life of its founder, Abraham.
B) it uses a lunar calendar.
C) its rituals derive from the agricultural cycle in Israel.
D) it commemorates the Exodus from Egypt.
E) it has widely diffused
34) Beliefs concerning the origin of the universe are
A) animism. B) cosmogony. C) monotheism. D) solstice. E) evolution
35) From the Russian Revolution to the fall of the communist government, what was the policy of the government towards religion?
A) All churches were closed.
B) The old church was replaced by Eastern Orthodoxy.
C) Churches remained open but played a limited role.
D) Youth were encouraged to attend so that they could be indoctrinated into communism.
E) None of the above
36) A pilgrim to Varanasi (Benares) in India is most likely to be a
A) Christian B) Jew C) Hindu D) Buddhist E) Muslim
37) Which of the following is not an element of cultural diversity?
A) language B) religion C) ethnicity D) race E) apartheid
38) Which best describes the distribution of ethnicities in the United States?
A) regional concentrations B) concentrations within cities
C) concentrations within neighborhoods D) all of the above
E) none of the above
39) Race is
A) characterized by Caucasian, African American, and Hispanic/Latino.
B) self-identification with a group sharing a biological ancestor.
C) determinable from physical characteristics.
D) evenly distributed around the world.
E) all of the above
40) Which of the following does the United States Census Bureau not consider a race?
A) Asian B) Black C) Hispanic/Latino D) White E) all of the above are races
41) White flight is
A) movement of Whites from northern cities.
B) emigration of Whites from an area Blacks where anticipated to move to.
C) establishment of suburbs.
D) decrease in percent Whites because of Black migration from the Southeast.
E) an expansion of the ghetto
42) Conflict in Africa is widespread because of
A) colonial boundaries. B) numerous ethnic groups.
C) language differences. D) all of the above
E) none of the above
43) The Lebanese civil war resulted when the country broke down because of
A) ethnic groups. B) religious groups.
C) changes in the majority between religious groups.
D) independent armies. E) interference from Syria
44) The process when a group forcibly removes another group is called
A) war. B) migrational push factors.
C) racism. D) ethnic cleansing.
E) migration pull factors
45) Cultural landscape is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A) Cultural ecology B) Nonmaterial culture
C) Environmental determinism D) Physical environment
E) Built environment
46) The world's fastest growing universalizing religion is
A) Buddhism. B) Christianity. C) Hinduism . D) Islam. E) Daoism
47) Folk culture is linked to the demographic transition chart in that
A) Latin American countries are in stage 2, African countries are in stage 3 and both are more likely to have folk customs that countries in stage 4
B) Folk cultures usually go along with societies that have larger, unified families under patriarchs
C) Folk cultures usually have lots of leisure time to develop and maintain traditions
D) Women are usually highly valued for their fertility and gain equal rights and respect through this
E) All of the above
48) Popular culture is linked to the demographic transition chart in that it
A) tends to occur in MDC's
B) has family values that have changed to the point where alternate lifestyles and divorce are allowed
C) has values that shift over time
D) can be expected in countries like the U.S. where women are going to college in larger numbers than men
E) All of the above
49) The dominant branch of Islam is
A) Sunni B) Shiite
C) trick questions- Muslims are both Sunni and Shiite at the same time
D) has taken over the Iraqi government E) none of the above
50) Mr. Lewis
A) Gives his cats airplane rides
B) Will be rolling around in your scan-trons after the test to try and feel the answers
C) Once killed a man for snoring too loud
D) Got into fights with Mr. Parson's in elementary school
E) All of the Above
51 How is an ethnic neighborhood a nodal region?
A Only people of that group belong B Like a radio station it weakens as it goes out
C It is not a ghetto D It is not
E Both A and B
52 What is the difference between and ethnic neighborhood and a Ghetto?
A There really is not one
B Forced versus voluntary migration
C Ghetto is a term used solely for African American communities of the 1960s
D Ethnic neighborhood is not really an official term
E Both A and D
53 What is the largest ethnic religion?
A Judaism B Islam C Hinduism D Christianity E Buddhism
54 How is the Jewish calendar an example of something an ethnic religion would have?
A It was imposed on the Jews by the Roman Empire
B Lunar calendar based off of Israel as the main location
C Ethnic religions are unique in that they tend to use calendars more than people of non-ethnic religions
D It differs from the calendar system of all non-Jewish people
E Both B and D
55 What is the third largest universal religion?
A Christianity B Islam C Buddhism D Judaism E Buddhism
56 What is the main religion of northern Africa
A Christianity B Islam C Buddhism D Judaism E Buddhism
57 What is the best example of an hierarchical religion?
A Roman Catholic Church B Islam C Buddhism D Judaism E Buddhism-
58 How does population growth relate to the issues facing Palestine and Israel?
A Higher NIR for Muslims B Higher NIR for Jewish people
C Higher NIR for Palestinians D Lower NIR for Persians
E Both A and C
59 What does Balkinization refer to?
A Loss of a group of people
B Break up of a larger country
C End of a government
D The creation of a new country composed of many smaller countries that have now merged
E None of the above
60 The area around Baghdad belongs to which sect of the Muslim religion
A Shiite B Sunni
C Kurdish D Albanian
E Both A and B
61 The borders of Pakistan, Bangladesh and India were drawn along primarily what lines?
A Linguistic B Religious C Colonial D Geometric designs E None of the above
Unit V Test Bank Questions
1.
The most important distinction for dividing the world into agricultural regions is
1.
whether the product is consumed on or off the farm
2.
whether crops are grown or animals are raised
3.
the location of the first agriculture
4.
the population density of the crop-producing region
5.
the agricultural density of the crop-producing region
2. The cultivation of plants by cutting stems and dividing roots is
1.
sawah
2.
seed agriculture
3.
subsistence agriculture
4.
vegetative planting
5.
dry planting
3. Which is not a form of subsistence agriculture?
1.
Mediterranean
2.
shifting cultivation
3.
pastoral nomadism
4.
all of the above are forms of subsistence agricultre
5.
none of the following terms " "
4. Which is not a characteristic of shifting cultivation?
1.
land is cleared by slashing the vegetation
2.
debris is burned to provide the soil with nutrients
3.
double cropping
4.
poor soil that needs to rejuvenate
5.
all of the above are characteristics
5. Shifting cultivation is most commonly found in which climate region?
1.
humid low-latitude
2.
dry
3.
warm mid-latitude
4.
cold mid-latitude
5.
Mediterranean
6. Which type of agriculture is practiced by the largest percentage of the world’s people?
1.
hunting and gathering
2.
intensive subsistence
3.
pastoral nomadism
4.
shifting cultivation
5.
slash and burn
7. Shifting cultivation causes environmental damage primarily when
1.
population exceeds environmental capacity
2.
more fertilizers are introduced
3.
fields are permanently cleared
4.
cultural traditions are maintained
5.
too much land is left fallow
8. Compared to shifting cultivation, intensive subsistence agriculture is characterized by which of the following?
1.
smaller farms
2.
higher agricultural density
3.
greater use of animal power
4.
all of the above
5.
none of the above
9. The most important reason why most people in north china grow crops other than wet rice is
1.
cultural preference
2.
tradition
3.
climate
4.
soil
5.
access to water
10. Pastoral nomadism is most commonly found in which climate region?
1.
humid low-latitude
2.
dry
3.
warm mid-latitude
4.
cold mid-latitude
5.
Mediterranean
11. Commercial agriculture is distinguished from subsistence agriculture by all but which of the following?
1.
low percentage of farmers in the labor force
2.
farm size
3.
heavy use of machinery
4.
output consumed on the farm
5.
both b and c
12. In the U.S. many farmers are integrated into a large food production industry. This is known as
1.
agribusiness
2.
commercial farming
3.
food processing
4.
mechanized farming
5.
horizontal integration
13. The type of agriculture practiced on a commercial farm depends on all but which of the following?
1.
cultural factors, such as consumer preferences
2.
locational factors, such as access to raw materials
3.
site factors, such as climate and soil
4.
situation factors, such as access to markets
5.
diffusion factors, such as the von thunen model
14. According to Von Thunen’s model, a commercial farmer is concerned with which of these costs?
1.
price of land
2.
cost of transporting output to market
3.
value of yield per hectare
4.
all of the above are considered
5.
none of the above " "
15. Von Thunen’s model can best be used to explain the geography of farms around which city
1.
Phoenix
2.
Atlanta
3.
New York
4.
Addis Ababa (Capital of Ethiopia)
5.
Houston
16. Other than corn, the most important crop in the U.S. mixed crop and livestock region is
1.
wheat
2.
soybeans
3.
grain
4.
fruits and vegetables
5.
nuts
17. Some regions produce more cheese than milk because
1.
they are outside of major milksheds
2.
of a cultural preference for cheese consumption
3.
they are specialized
4.
the output is not sold directly to consumers
5.
both a and c
18. Ranching has declined in the southwestern united states primarily because
1.
crops yield more income per area
2.
the predominant breed of cattle has changed
3.
long-distance cattle drives are no longer practical
4.
the region lacks adequate water supplies
5.
americans eat less beef
19. The different areas of the world where Mediterranean agriculture predominates share similar
1.
climate
2.
cultural beliefs
3.
levels of development
4.
social customs
5.
languages
20. One difference between the mixed crop and livestock farming and grain farming is
1.
in grain farming, most crops are grown for human consumption
2.
mixed crop and livestock farming is located near urban areas
3.
in grain farming, most crops are grown to feed the animals
4.
in grain farming, corn is the most important crop
5.
in mixed crop and livestock farming, wheat is the most important crop
21. Livestock ranching is
1.
more likely to be practiced in LDCs
2.
adapted to a Mediterranean climate
3.
practiced where vegetation is sparse
4.
a form of subsistence agriculture
5.
both a and d
22. All of the following is true about "truck farming" except
1.
it is the predominant type of agriculture in the US southeast
2.
is accessible to large markets
3.
it includes products like corn and wheat
4.
it is likely to include migrant labor
5.
none of the above
23. The Von Thunen model includes which of the following beliefs?
1.
market location plays a key role in crop selection
2.
farmers compare the cost of land versus the cost of transporting crops
3.
the ring closest to the city contains livestock production
4.
all of the above
5.
both a and b
24. Which statement correctly describes hunting and gathering?
1.
all humans obtained their food this way before the invention of agriculture
2.
it is a form of nomadism
3.
this form is still practiced
4.
all of the above
5.
none of the above
25. Asian agriculture is characterized by shortages of all but which of the following?
1.
equipment
2.
funds
3.
labor
4.
land
5.
all of the above
26. The US government deals with a surplus of crops by all of the following except
1.
paying farmers to let fields to lay fallow
2.
paying farmers when prices drop
3.
buying the surplus
4.
donating to foreign governments
5.
all of the above
27. Sustainable agriculture
1.
is similar to subsistence agriculture
2.
is more sensitive land management
3.
includes intensive use of pesticides
4.
incorporated genetic engineering
5.
strictly separates cultivation of crops and livestock
28. The type of diffusion that primarily spread the green revolution is
1.
relocation
2.
hierarchical
3.
stimulus
4.
expansion
5.
none of the above
29. Agriculture that creates self-sufficiency with low product per acre and low population density is known as
1.
intensive commercial agriculture
2.
intensive subsistence agriculture
3.
extensive commercial agriculture
4.
extensive subsistence agriculture
5.
organic farming
30. The green revolution has had the most success in
1.
europe
2.
asia
3.
africa
4.
north america
5.
latin america
31. Which of the following is NOT a result of the green revolution?
1.
it improved the ability of women to make a living in the agricultural sector
2.
it used genetically improved seeds to increase crop yields
3.
it increased the machinery available to farmers
4.
it relied heavily on irrigation and fertilizer
5.
it significantly increased food production
32. The boserup thesis contends that
1.
the world will not be able to feed all of the inhabitants as population grows
2.
rising population will intensify agricultural production even on marginal land
3.
the maintenance of soil fertility can only be accomplished through swidden agriculture
4.
the controlled management of water is detrimental to intensive subsistence agriculture
5.
none of the above
33. Because of the use of _______, it is now more likely that an entire crop may be lost to a disease or pest
1.
field blends
2.
sterile hybrids
3.
chemical fertilizer
4.
monoculture
5.
pastoral nomadism
34. Which of the following activities is most likely to be found in the outermost zone of Von Thunen’s model of agricultural land us?
1.
mixed farming
2.
subsistence
3.
specialty farming
4.
dairying and market gardening
5.
extensive grain and stock raising
35. All of the following has limited the success of the green revolution except
1.
the displacement of subsistence farmers
2.
belated research efforts directed to traditional african crops
3.
the difficulty of scientifically engineering high-yield rice strains
4.
a decline in the genetic diversity of crop varieties
5.
the destruction of large tracts of land by poor irrigation practices
36. What is the general location of the largest areas of commercial farms?
1.
in tropical zones
2.
in north america
3.
in the temperate zones
4.
in the countries of the former soviet union
5.
in sub-saharan africa
37. The primary reason for the increased success of agriculture on a global scale is directly related to
1.
the decision of the UN security council and general assembly
2.
the policies of the US department of agriculture
3.
the worldwide commercialization of farming
4.
the recent advances in technology and genetic engineering
5.
the decline in subsistence farming and slash and burn techniques
38. The process of shifting cultivation most directly relates to
1.
the first agricultural revolution
2.
the second agricultural revolution
3.
the green revolution
4.
hunting and gathering economies
5.
subsistence farming
39. The industrial revolution transformed western agriculture
1.
through mechanization and the creation of new markets
2.
with biotechnology
3.
through technological and religious change
4.
by eliminating agricultural pests
5.
by eliminating plant hybridization
40. The effects of biotechnology
1.
are positive because they allow for much greater agricultural yields
2.
are negative because the expense limits availability to all farmers across the globe
3.
are unknown because very little research has been conducted on them
4.
all of the above
5.
none of the above
41. Soil specialists must work to overcome the negative effects of _______ associated with agricultural production
1.
fertilization and salinization
2.
pesticides and fertilizers
3.
salinization and topsoil loss
4.
topsoil loss and gentrification
5.
the green revolution and agribusiness
42. Situation identifies a place by its
A location relative to other objects
B mathematical location on the earth’s surface
C nominal location
D unique physical characteristics
E none of the above
43. A large scale map most likely shows
A al large area
B a small area
C more generalization
D less generalization
E both d and b
44. Which is true.
A large scale maps have a large fraction and tend to show a smaller area in less detail because
they have more miles represented per square inch on a map.
B small scale maps have a smaller fraction and represent a larger area in less
detail because they have more miles per square inch on a map represented
C large scale maps have a small fraction and show a larger area in more detail
D small scale maps have a larger fraction and in general show a smaller area in
more detail because they represent fewer miles per square inch than large scale
maps
E None of the above
45. The frequency of something within a given unit of area is
A concentration
B distribution
C pattern
D density
E none of the above
46. Which is not a form of expansion diffusion
A contagious
B hierarchical
C relocation
D stimulus
E none of the above
47. An example of a primary sector activity is
A Education
B Manufacturing
C Mining
D Retailing
E Shipping
48. The tertiary sector includes all of the following except
A transportation
B producer services
C government
D construction
E education
49. The value of a product minus the costs of raw materials and energy is
A gross domestic product
B tertiary sector
C gross national product
D productivity
E value added
50. A company that uses more than one mode of transport will locate near
A consumers
B raw materials
C suburbs
D markets
E break-of-bulk point
51. In contrast to Fordist, Post-Fordist production is more likely to
A be repetitive
B place more importance on site factors
C assign each worker one task
D dominate transnational corporations
E introduce more flexible work rules
Unit VI Test Bank
1. The difference in per capita GDP between the more developed and less developed regions is
A. widening.
B. remaining constant.
C. decreasing.
D. zero.
E. negative
2. The gross value of the product minus the costs of raw materials and energy
A. level of development.
B. gross domestic product.
C. productivity.
D. value added.
E. development
3. Per capita means?
A. for each person
B. the number of countries below the poverty level
C. the distribution of wealth within a country
D. the spatial distribution of global wealth
E. the level of industry within a country
4. An example of a primary sector activity is
A. education.
B. manufacturing.
C. mining.
D. retailing.
E. shipping
5. The tertiary sector includes all but which of the following?
A. transportation
B. producer services
C. government
D. construction
E. education
6. The large percentage of population involved in agriculture in China indicates that
A. the country imports most of its food.
B. few people are unemployed.
C. most people consume an inadequate amount of calories.
D. the country exports most of its food
E. most people must produce food for their own survival.
7. The value of a product compared to the amount of labor required to make it
A. gross domestic product.
B. value added.
C. tertiary sector.
D. gross national product
E. productivity.
8. Which of the following is not an indicator of a country's level of development?
A. infant mortality rate
B. crude death rate
C. age structure
D. natural increase rate
E. both B and D
9. Petroleum reserves in the Middle East are
A. clustered primarily in the Persian Gulf states.
B. dispersed throughout the region.
C. concentrated primarily along the Mediterranean Sea.
D. primarily in Saudi Arabia.
E. clustered primarily along the Red Sea
10. According to Rostow's development model, the process towards economic maturity happens when
A. a high percentage of national wealth is allocated to nonproductive activities.
B. an elite group initiates innovative activities.
C. take-off industries achieve technical advances.
D. workers become skilled and specialized and technology diffuses to many industries.
E. per capita GDP exceeds $5,000
11. According to the international trade approach to development, a country should identify which of its following assets?
A. abundant agricultural products
B. high quality manufactured goods
C. imports to be limited
D. low cost distribution networks
E. none of the above
12. The biggest problem in promoting development through the international trade alternative is
A. overdevelopment of LDCs
B. increased price of petroleum.
C. regional cooperation.
D. unequal distribution of resources.
E. increased demand for many goods.
13. In contrast to the international trade approach, the self-sufficiency approach to development
A. begins when an elite group initiates innovative activities.
B. This system tries to ensure that rural areas are roughly equal to urban areas in terms of developing
C. India is an example of this kind of country which spreads investment equally among economic sectors.
D. focuses on one industry to begin development
E. Both B and C
14. The principal benefit of the self-sufficiency approach is to promote
A. balanced growth of all economic sectors.
B. global competitiveness for local industries.
C. the maintenance of a large bureaucracy.
D. unequal distribution of resources.
E. the dependency theory
15. Prior to the Industrial Revolution, the distribution of industry was
A. clustered.
B. concentrated.
C. dispersed.
D. randomly distributed.
E. all of the above
16. Eastern North America is the continent's manufacturing center in part because it has access to the continent's
A . largest markets
B. most extensive sources of essential raw materials.
C. best-maintained transportation systems.
D. all of the above
E. both A and C
17. Situation costs are critical to a firm that wishes to
A. avoid labor unions.
B. minimize production costs inside the plant.
C. minimize transport costs.
D. identify unique characteristics of a particular location.
E. increase bulk-reducing industries
18. The location of a maquiladora plant is a good example of the importance of
A. product size determining a location
B. labor costs and government restrictions determining a location
C. Post-Fordist production.
D. break-of-bulk points.
E. both a and b
19. A company which uses more than one mode of transport will often locate near
A. break-of-bulk points.
B. consumers.
C. raw materials.
D. suburbs.
E. markets
20. Copper mining is an example of
A. perishable industry.
B. specialized industry.
C. bulk-gaining industry.
D. communications-oriented industry.
E. bulk-reducing industry
21. A manufacturer of women's and children's underwear is more likely than Google to
A. relocate in a developing country B. go out of business C. need more capital.
D. all of the above E. both A and C
22. Demand for many industrial goods in more developed countries has been stagnant in recent years, in part because of
A. low prices for many goods.
B. market saturation.
C. rapid population growth.
D. substantial salary increases.
E. lack of labor
23. By subsidizing industries such as steel and textile, governments contribute to the global problem of
A. higher prices.
B. stagnation
C. lower consumer demand.
D. oversupply.
E. job loss.
24. Transnational corporations have transferred some work to less developed countries because of access to
A. government subsidies.
B. labor.
C. markets.
D. raw materials.
E. capital
25. In contrast to fordist production, Post-Fordist production is more likely to
A. be repetitive
B. place more importance on site factors.
C. assign each worker one task.
D. dominate transnational corporations.
E. introduce more flexible work rules.
26. Maquiladoras are possible because of the change in what type of function of our border?
A. operational B locational C situational D linguistic E Girastic
27. What two features best characterize the changes affected by the Industrial Revolution?
A. service industries and information processing
B. technological innovation and specialization
C. improved farm implements and the development of hybrid seeds
D. higher literacy rates and decreased population doubling time
E. well-equipped professional armies and the deployment of nuclear weapons
28. Which of these statements about core-periphery relationships is correct in characterizing the global economic system?
A. It works to the advantage of periphery countries
B. It works to the disadvantage of core countries
C. It works to the advantage of both core and periphery countries
D. It works to the disadvantage of periphery countries
E. It is irrelevant in a complex worldwide economic system
29. An industry is said to be footloose if
A. transport costs have little bearing on location
B. transport costs determine location
C. power costs determine location
D. borders of a country do make a difference in its location
E. labor costs determine location
30. Which of the following is not typically defined as one of the four key determinants of development?
A. Per capita GDP B. Literacy rate
C. physical environment D. Life expectancy
E. Amount of education
31. Purchasing power parity refers to
A. the goal of reforming trade to make it more equitable
B. a monetary measurement that takes into account what money actually buys
C. subsidies used to strengthen home industries
D. Making corporations pay equally for all items they use
E. Making all items equal in price
32. People are more productive in more developed countries because they
A. are better workers than anyone in LDCs
B. have access to more technology.
C. have a higher value added per person than could ever be possible in an LDC.
D. are better educated than all LDC people.
E. live longer
33. The lifespan of women and their survival rate from birth would be relevant to which
A. The Gender-Related Development Index
B. The Human Development Index
C. The Gender Empowerment Measure
D. Rostow’s development model
E. The international trade approach
34. Assumptions in Rostow’s development model include all of the following except
A. the world is the same as when MDCs moved through the model
B. every country will move from step 1 through step 5
C. LDCs do not face additional barriers due to a crowded field
D. development somewhere requires underdevelopment somewhere else
E. both B and D
35. A transnational corporation
A. operates in countries other than the one in which its headquarters are established
B. has the potential to be more economically powerful than a sovereign state
C. takes advantage of global production networks
D. allows corporations to take advantage of the full range of geographical variations in costs
E. all of the above
36. A copper concentration mill tends to locate near a copper mine because it is a
A. bulk-reducing industry. B. perishable industry.
C. site factor. D. specialized manufacturer.
E. capital issue
37. Since 1980, new U.S. automobile assembly plants have been built in the
A. Midwest, to minimize national distribution costs.
B. Northeast, to minimize access to the largest market.
C. Sunbelt, to minimize labor costs.
D. West, to minimize access to Japan.
E. Southeast, where labor is cheap
38. Industrial areas outside North America and Europe have become increasingly important in recent years primarily because of
A. access to markets. B. access to raw materials.
C. break-of-bulk points. D. site factors.
E. situation factors
39. All of the following are examples of perishable products except
A. daily newspaper B. milk
C. steel D. all of the above are perishable products
E. both A and B
40. Of the three steps of textile production, which is more dependant on situation factors?
A. Spinning B. Weaving C. Sewing D. all equally dependant E. none are dependant
41. Which of the following explains why the most basic industrial problem on a global scale is a gap between the world demand for products and the world capacity to supply them?
A. Stagnant demand B. Increased capacity worldwide
C. Expanding markets D. Lack of surplus
E. both A and B
42. The most significant benefit of EPZs for LDCs is
A. the influx of foreign-owned businesses
B. improved jobs skills for workers
C. creation of employment opportunities
D. money made from tariffs
E. high wages
43. Which of the following are negative aspects of EPZs?
A. Components are not locally purchased
B. LDC must provide infrastructure
C. Concessions often outweigh benefits
D. Low wage jobs
E. All of the above
44. Thomas Malthus concluded that
A population increased arithmetically while population increased geometrically
B the world's rate of population increase was higher than food production
C moral restrain was already and definitively producing lower NIR's
D population growth was inevitably going to end in war or famine every time
45. One important feature of the world's population that is most likely going to have the most important
future implications
A It is increasing at a slower pace
B there are more people alive today than ever before
C the most rapid growth is in the less developed countries
D people are uniformly distributed across the globe
E many countries now have negative population growth increase rates
46. Refugees primarily migrate because of which push factor?
A Economic B Political
C Environmental D None had precedent over the others
E None of the Above
47. Geographers define overpopulation as
A too many people in the world
B too many people in a region
C too many people compared to resources
D all of the above
E None of the above
48. The most important obstacle hindering emigration from eastern Europe during the Cold War was
A the Rhine river C the Iron Curtain
B the Alps D capitalist democracies and their quotas
49. Millions of West Africans migrated to Nigeria during the 1970s when the country's economy
expanded and then left when it collapsed in the 1980s. This is an example of
A a push factor becoming a pull factor
B emigration changing to immigration
C forced migration to voluntary
D a pull factor changing to push
E Refugees being forced in and out of countries
50. Agricultural density is the number of
A acres of farmland C number of people to arable land
B farmers per area of farmland D number of people to each unit of land
E arithmetic density of an area
51. Forced consolidation of farms forced
A a decline of food supplies on a global scale
B made cities less likely to find the labor pools they needed
C increased death rates everywhere it occurred
D made Europeans emigrate from their farms
52. In the early 1900s, most migrants to the United States came from
A Asia C Western Europe
B Africa D Latin America
E Eastern Europe
53. The process through which skilled and educated classes leave to other more developed countries
A net migration B immigration
C brain drain D Inteliousis
E None of the Above
54. If physiological density is much higher than agricultural density then a country has
A inefficient farmers
B a large number of farmers
C a small percentage of farmers
D too many people for the available resources
55. If physiological density is about twice of the agricultural density then
A you have a country that must be having a famine
B there is only one other person for every farmer
C the country is most likely not a more developed country
D you have twice the number of farmers over the overall population
E both B and C
1Greater dependence on coal is likely to occur by
A reducing levels of air pollution
B expanding use of electricity
C having fewer mining accidents
D reducing levels of soil erosion problem
E increasing levels of soil erosion problems
2As a result of high land costs, the American CBD is characterized by
A less intensive land use
B construction of skyscrapers
C intense competition for very limited space
D high threshold and range
E horizontal growth
3The French long-lot system was developed primarily because of
A collective land ownership
B common grazing lands
C inheritance laws
D need for access to a river
E need to plot a standard plot size
4All of the following are examples of types of services except
Aconumer B transportation C public D business E all of the above are
5. the process of legally adding land area to a city in the U.S. is
A redlining
B accrediation
C annexation
D defined by an urbanized area
E an application of eminent domain
6. A process by which real estate agents convince white owners to sell their homes is
A blockbusting B filtering C gentrification D redlining E greenbelting
7. The most significant benefit of the enclosure movement was to
A destroy traditionl village life
B promote agricultural efficiency
C replace abandoned villages with new farmsteads
D stimulate urbanization
E create clustered rural settlements
8. To deal with the financial problems in some areas of the city, American governments
A reduce taxes
B reduce services
C receive more grants from the federal government
D improve services
E all of the above
9. British cities are surrounded by open spaces known as
A greenbelts B public housing C sprawl D squatter settlemetns E suburbs
10. A legal form of segregation in U.S. cities is achieved through
Ablockbusting Bfiltering Czoning Dgreenbelts Eredlinig
11. The U.S. government has encouraged the use of cars in part by
A building interstate ighways
B charging high gasoline taxes
C constructing new subways
D protecting prime agricultural land
E both a and b
12. According to the concentric zone model a city develops in a series of
Acorridors Brings Cnodes Dareas Esectors
13. social area analysis attempts to explain
Athe diffusion of settlements
Bthe development of squatter settlements in developing countries
Cthe distribution of different types of people in an urban area
Dwhich of three models of urban structure is the most accurate in the U.S.
Ethe changing location of retail and office activities in North American cities
14. Higher income people tend to live near the center of the city in all but which of the following regions
Alatin america Bnorth america Csouth asia Dwestern europe Enone
15. In a linear community the best locaiton for a service is the
Ahinterland Brange Cthreshold Dmedian Emarket
16. The fall of the Roman Empire in the 5th century A.D. brought about what change in urban settlements
Adevelopment of city-states
Brapid urbanization
Creduction of urban populaiton
Drevival of urban life
Edisperson of settlements
17The minimum number of people needed to support a service is
Ahinterland Brange Cthreshold Dmedian Ecentral place
18Larger settlements are
Amore numerous and closer together
Bmore numerous and further apart
Cless numerous and less together
Dthere is no concrete pattern
19Whys is the absence of a rank-size distribution significant in a country like Romania
Aconsumers do not have access to goods
Bthe capital is a primate city
Cconsumers do not have to travel far for goods or services
Dconsumers are less likely to take buses to obtain goods and services
Eboth b and d
20All of the following are true about central place theory except
Ait was first proposed in the 1930s
Bit explaines how services are distributed and why a regular pattern of settlemetns exists
Cit applies best to an industrialized area
Dit is more applicable to MDCs than LDCs
E NONE
21According to the sector model, the best housing is located in
ACorridor from the downtown to the edge of the city
BThe CBD
CNodes near the universities and parks
DRenovated inner city neighborhoods
EAn outer ring surrounding the city
22The CBD attracts offices primarily because of its
AHigh accessibility
BHigh land costs
CMore intensive land use
DLess intensive land use
EConstruction of skyscrapers
23In the U.S. which of the following definitions of a city covers the largest land area
ACBD
BCentral City
CUrbanized Area
DMetro Statistical Area
ESuburban area
24Solar energy is more expensive than other forms of energy for most consumers primarily because
AConsumers cannot count on having enough during cloudy days
BInstallation costs are high
CSilicon is a scarce element
DSolar Energy is dangerous
ENone of the above
25A land use typically excluded from a North American CBD is
AGovernment
BIndustrial
COffice
DRetail
EPersonal Services
26Megalopolis refers to
AAdjacent overlapping Metropolitan Statistical Areas
BCentral Cities
CCBD plus outer suburbs
DCentral cities plus urbanized areas
EConsolidated Metro Stat Areas
27Public transportation is better suited for commuting to the CBD primarily because
AIt is less expensive
BEach traveler takes up less space
CCommuters desire to use it
DThe CBD population has declined
EBoth a and c
28Contrary to air and water pollution, solid waste pollution is reduced through
ABurning residuals
BConstructing landfills
CConcentrating rather than dispersing waste
DReducing damage to the Earth’s ozone layer
EDispersing rather than concentrating waste
29The most important political reason for the origin of settlements was a place to
ABury the dead
BEducate children
CProtect the group’s assets
DHouse the ruler
ENone of the above
30Reduction of biodiversity through species extinction is especially important in
ASemi-arid rangelands
BArid rangelands
CMid-latitude deciduous forests
DMountainous tundra
ETropical rain forests
31Rural settlements differs from urban settlements primarily according to which type of activity
ACultural Beconomic Cpolitical Dreligious Esocial
32Most people in the world live in what type of settlement
AClustered urban
BDispersed rural
CClustered rural
DMetro area
EUrban settlement
33The study of constraints placed by resources on the level of development is
ACarrying capacity analysis
BDesertification
CEnvironmental impact statement
DProven reserves
EPossiblism
34A process by which banks designate an area within which they refuse to lend money for improvements
ABlockbusting
BFiltering
CGentrification
DRedlining
EUrban renewal
35Producer services provide what kind of services
ADiffusion and distribution of services
BServices to businesses
CServices for the wellbeing of individuals
DSecurity and protection
EBoth a and b
36The area surrounding a service from which customers are attracted is the
AHinterland Brange Cthreshold Dmedian Ecentral place theory
37Critics and defenders of sustainable development both agree that
ADefinitions of resources change drastically and unpredictably over time
BEarth has only 11.4 billion hectares of biologically productive land
CLess international cooperation is needed to reduce the gap between ldc’s and mdc’s
DMore international cooperation is needed to reduce the gap between ldc’s and mdc’s
EMDC’s must dictate sound environmental policies to LDC’s
38U.S. central cities face fiscal problems because
AFederal and state funds are available
BLow-income people are concentrated here
CMiddle-class families are attracted here
DRedlining is no longer legal
EGentrification is occurring
39A recent change in the density gradient has been
AThe elimination of the gap traditionally found in the center
BAn increase in the extremes between the inner and outer areas
CAn increase in the number of people living in the center
DA reduction in the differences in densities found within an urban area
EAn increase in the differences in densities found within an urban area
40According to the gravity model, the potential use of a service at a location is related
ADirectly to the threshold and inversely to the market
BDirectly to distance and inversely to population
CDirectly to population and inversely to distance
DInversely to both distance and population
EDirectly to both population and distance
41If a country follows the rank-size rule, if the largest city has 1,000,000 inhabitants, how many people live in the fifth largest city
42. largest city in the world
A MEXICO CITY
B TOKYO
C BEIJING
D BOMBAY - MUMBAI
E NONE OF THE ABOVE
43If a country’s largest city (like Slovenia) has 1,000,000 inhabitants and the second largest had 200,000 inhabitants the country follows which distribution
ACentral place Beconomic base Cprimate city Drank-size Edensity gradient
A100,000
B200,000
C400,000
D40,000
Enone of the above
44In recent years, urban residents are more likely to shop in
ACorner shops
BDowntown stores
CSuburban malls
DAll of the above
ENone
45A market area is a good example of what kind of region
ACultural Bformal Cfunctional Duniform Evernacular
46Which city model most reflects the influence of cars of cars?
concentric
sector
mutiple nuclei
Latin American
none of the above
47Which model modified the concentric zone model to take into account transportation routes
concentric
sector
mutiple nuclei
Latin American
none of the above
48How does the pattern of buildings change as you reach the center of a city
it changes according to the ideas of the bid-rent pattern going from intense use to low intensity in the CBD
it changes according to the central place theory and goes from low intense use to high intensity use in the CBD
it changes according to the bid-rent pattern and goes from low intensity to high intensity land use in the CBD
the buidlings in the center are more horizontal
the buildings are more likely to be a part of sprawl
49What is at the center of the concentric zone model and many other city models
CBD
a tootsie roll
nothing inside (empty like the heartless Mr. Lewis)
The centro pertifico
the zone of accretion
50According to the sector model where would the lower class neighborhoods exist (next to what)
industry
middle class
all along a spine from the CBD
all next to the CBD
none of the above
51In what year will the majority of people be living in cities?
2007
2008
2050
2030
2015
52In what type of country do you find most of the world's urban population?
MDCs
LDCs
European
Asian
North American
53What is the biggest difference in the type of buildings that create sprawl versus the type of buildings you find downtown?
horizontal and mixed use zones
vertical and mixed use zones
closely clustered low intensity land use downtown
closely clustered horizontal buildings in the sprawl
all of the above
54What is the main idea behind the design of urban sprawl
to space buildings apart and create homes that all exist at the ends of cul-de-sacs
to cluster areas together in towns and have green zones between those areas
to build malls and use single use zonign to separate areas of usage
both a and b
none
55In the Latin American model, where do the rich live
industry
middle class
all along a spine from the CBD
all next to the CBD
none of the above
56What is the difference between the edge of Latin American cities and zone of accretion building material
buildings take delivery of resources like water and gas
buildings in the zone of accretion are more temporary and made of scrap metals
closer into the city the buildings are more permanent
both a and c
all of the above
posted by mrlewishistoricalsociety @ 8:11 AM
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